Question:
– Hide quoted text — Show quoted text – You give me a verse in the Bible that says when a person is filled with the Holy Ghost they don’t speak in tongues. All DID speak in tongues when receiving the Holy Ghost, and there is not scripture out there that will ever say otherwise. Don’t you read the Bible instead of just guessing at it?? The verses in 1 Corinthians that you refer to are not talking about the Holy Ghost, they are talking about the gifts of the spirit that one can obtain after receiving the Holy Ghost. In the letter to the Corinthians, he wasn’t talking to sinners, he was talking to people who had already been saved and established a church, so your claim is null.
Once again, I have ALREADY answered this debate…. Is "speaking in tongues" evidence of one being filled with the Holy Spirit? I am sure that after we examine the facts found in scripture, we will see that this is not the case. Luke 1:15, "For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother’s womb." No mention of John speaking in tongues, either while in the womb or anytime during his earthly ministry. But notice what it says WORD FOR WORD… "and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost". He was definately filled with the Holy Ghost, but NEVER spoke in tongues. Luke 1:67, "And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying," John the Baptist’s father was FILLED WITH THE HOLY GHOST but there is no mention or any biblical evidence of him EVER SPEAKING in tongues….but yet the bible says he was "Filled with the Holy Ghost"…. Luke 1:35, "And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God." Mary was overcome with the Holy Ghost, but there is NO RECORD of her speaking in tongues BEFORE the day of pentecost. Yet, she was filled with the Spirit BEFORE THEN yet NEVER spake in tongues…. Luke 3:21-22, "Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also being baptized, and praying, the heaven was opened, And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased." Jesus was FILLED WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT more than ANYONE in the HISTORY of MANKIND, yet he NEVER spake in tongues… not one record of it ANYWHERE in the Bible! Would Jesus forget to teach us and the disciples something as important as tongues talking if he expected us to do it? I would think since he is the creator of all things, the obvious answer would be NO. And just for you people who think that Matthew 27:46, "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Is tongues speaking, IT ISNT! It is a form of ARAMAIC! A known language at that time! Acts 10:38, "How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him." Jesus Christ, GOD IN THE FLESH! Annointed with the Holy Ghost, yet NEVER SPAKE IN TONGUES! John 14:26, "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you." Jesus tells us what the effect of the Holy Ghost will have on us, "teach you all things" but notice that he does not include TONGUE SPEAKING as part of this gift? This is the 3rd time Jesus mentions the Holy Spirit and has NEVER mentioned tongues talking as being a evidence of the filling with the Holy Spirit. John 20:22, "And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:" This is the 4th reference Jesus, GOD IN THE FLESH, makes to the Holy Spirit, yet NO MENTION of tongues speaking as an evidence of being filled with the Spirit! Acts 4:31, "And when they had prayed, the place was shaken where they were assembled together; and they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and they spake the word of God with boldness." One again, disciples FILLED witht he Holy Ghost, yet they did NOT speak in tongues…..There is NO EVIDENCE that the filling of the Holy Ghost is followed by tongues speaking. Note: Not all the disciples spake in TONGUES (A known Language of those present! Always a KNOWN TONGUE! See Acts 2:4-11; 10:46, and 19:6 to prove it was ALWAYS A KNOWN LANGUAGE of those present when it was spoken, and there was NO INTERPRETATOR PRESENT OR NEEDED!)
Response:
– Hide quoted text — Show quoted text – You give me a verse in the Bible that says when a person is filled with the Holy Ghost they don’t speak in tongues. All DID speak in tongues when receiving the Holy Ghost, and there is not scripture out there that will ever say otherwise. Don’t you read the Bible instead of just guessing at it?? The verses in 1 Corinthians that you refer to are not talking about the Holy Ghost, they are talking about the gifts of the spirit that one can obtain after receiving the Holy Ghost. In the letter to the Corinthians, he wasn’t talking to sinners, he was talking to people who had already been saved and established a church, so your claim is null. Once again, I have ALREADY answered this debate….
And you still continue to claim that lack of mention means the opposite is true, but that is not so, and you don’t have scripture to prove it. If all you are going to do is recite the same irrelevant scriptures, then don’t respond at all.
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